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so the first premise is just off: under fiat (i.e. USA today) isn't paying with new money.
  • M2 is flat
  • Fed balance sheet is shrinking
  • and Fed seigniorage revenue to Treasury was always minor (and in the last 3 years has been negative).

There IS NO MONEY PRINTING FOR BONDS


So, fiat needs taxation to avoid debasement, which I think was my original point.
Even so, that doesn't work/answer OP's question...
You could only say the first premise is off if there were also no tax revenue paying back the loans. To be fair, I left out the possibility of paying with newly borrowed money, which also applies to both cases and defers the ultimate question of where payment is going to come from.
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