Here’s what the administration publicly put on the table after the Venezuela strike/raid, and what it implies.

If the U.S. is executing a DOJ arrest warrant inside a sovereign state with air strikes and special forces, what legal and constitutional basis is being asserted? Is it host-nation consent, congressional authorization, or self-defense? I’m not arguing Maduro is legitimate or innocent. I’m asking what authority is being claimed for the operation that was just described.

Trump said the U.S. would “run the country” until a “proper” transition happens, and said the U.S. isn’t afraid of boots on the ground, noting that boots were on the ground “last night.” He also said large U.S. oil companies would spend billions to repair Venezuela’s oil infrastructure and that those companies would be reimbursed.

Rubio said this wasn’t the kind of mission that requires congressional notification beforehand, calling it “trigger-based” with conditions met “night after night,” and said Congress was notified afterward. Trump added they didn’t notify beforehand because “Congress will leak.” 

Military leadership described a Delta Force raid enabled by intelligence, with helicopters taking fire, one aircraft hit but still flyable, and Maduro and his wife taken into DOJ custody without U.S. fatalities. 

If the stated goals are arrest, regime transition, and oil-sector rebuild, then the relevant debate is mechanism and authority, not vibes. Which legal basis was invoked, and where is it stated publicly?