pull down to refresh

How do you explain non productive price speculation where no additional goods are produced?

The point is individual gain for the investor is ALWAYS the goal of capital allocations under a capitalist system.

It may enable greater consumption by the individual as a result but at that point the individual is not actively engaging in capitalism but rather consuming their profits and capital.

Price speculation, or capital allocation, is a productive activity. The investor's individual gain (absent government interference) is still a reflection of the value they've produced for others, the same as any form of income.

Are you saying that because there's no physical labor or physical goods involved, price speculation is unproductive? That's such brainless commie logic.

reply

No that's not what I said- you are grossly misrepresenting what I have said . . . again.
Go back and read what I said and think again.

With asset price speculation there are often no additional goods or services provided for anyone else so in that sense it is non productive and does not involve the 'production of the commodities are because other people need and want them'.

reply

But it is productive. It's just that it's not productive of a commodity. It's productive of an intangible service. There is a want and a need for what the speculative investor is doing.

reply