Does MITM when selling bitcoin count? Warning, I already wrote about this online on r/bitcoin and elsewhere. And I was requiring fiat by cash deposit in bank, so was very confident how nothing can happen. Well, person C (the scammer) advertised cheap and/or fast sending money from Spain to Venezuela. Person A contacted C. C contacted me (call me B, money flows A -> B -> C) wanting to buy bitcoins. I give my bank account number to C, C gives it to A, A deposits, I send bitcoin to C, C disappears, A calls me a scammer. To be honest, I knew A is not C, did not think about it, cash deposit => cannot be reversed => safe. Also, A deposited money without C notifying me before, should have been a red flag for me, but I just wanted to quickly resolve the "problem" of receiving money and not knowing from who and why.

Amount: just 185 euros.

Then came a scam of Spanish "justice". I was not allowed to defend myself at the trial, e.g. could not interrogate the victim (A), "only a lawyer can do so". Not true, see art. 6.3 (d) ECHR. Guilty because I am C, that is, B = C.

Appealed, and court admits that I am not C. But I am still guilty because I should have known that 0.5 % of 1000 euro = 50 euros, which is too much for just sending the money. 0.5 % was my fee or profit, I said so at the trial. You may note that Spanish (or judicial) math is a bit strange, apparently 50% of 1000 is 5000. Also I was just sending money, A could have as well sent the money directly to C. Who cares that A has euros and C apparently wants bitcoins? Bitcoins are euros after all, selling bitcoins for euros is just resending money.

Some more appeals which were basically ignored, and then wrote to ECHR, where I stupidly missed deadline by 1 day.

Fined 180 euros (but would go to jail for 15 days if not paid).