I use averages precisely because of all the debatable nuances there are in the income distribution. I have no doubt the wealthiest 10%-20% of the people have increased their purchasing power to buy property. For the poorer 80% of the people, this decline is even worse.

Because of the income inequality distribution, I could have used the median values instead of the averages, and that would have shown even a grimmer picture than the numbers I showed. But that would be something an economist can debate saying that the total share of wealth is the important element, thus the average numbers are the important. Also I did not find in my sources any data other than averages.