The correlation ought to go to 1 simply because the base of the stonk is USD (AAPL = AAPL/USD) or a derivative of that and fiat gains is the common denominator for success by the majority of investors.
I'm trying to think of a good method to prove the assertion that the higher the time preference of the average investor, the closer to 1 the total correlation becomes. Any ideas?
AAPL=AAPL/USD) or a derivative of that and fiat gains is the common denominator for success by the majority of investors.