In an economy using a hard money standard, is there a way to express the value of the total supply of the money? For example, how would it relate to total non-monetary wealth? Or perhaps the present value of all future production of goods? Does velocity come into play somehow?
If there isn't a strict equivalence relation, is there a compelling lower or upper bound? Or is the question unanswerable, perhaps due to the distributed nature of an economy?
Does the answer change if the assumption of hard money is removed?
I'm just as interested in methodologies for approaching the question and any assumptions that might be required to arrive at a particular answer. (I assume there isn't an obvious, well-understood answer already out there.)
Is anyone aware of any literature addressing the topic?