101 sats \ 2 replies \ @south_korea_ln OP 2 Nov
First, break the integral into two parts as
Using the substitution, the first integral becomes
while the second becomes
With the additional substitution , the final integral above becomes
so that the original integral is equal to
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0 sats \ 1 reply \ @SimpleStacker 2 Nov
Curious as to how the hint was related
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21 sats \ 0 replies \ @south_korea_ln OP 2 Nov
Ah i was trying to hint at the fact one had to do another substitution. You had already done one, i was trying to tell you to do another one. Instead of switching to integration by parts. Maybe not the best hint ;)
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300 sats \ 2 replies \ @SimpleStacker 31 Oct
This is as far as I got. Maybe someone else can take it the rest of the way
The left term can be easily calculated.
For the right term, let
Using integration by parts, you can show that:
Starting at which is easy to calculate, you can use the above algorithm to eventually calculate to find the answer.
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0 sats \ 1 reply \ @south_korea_ln OP 1 Nov
For the right term, one can do another substitution. Will write it out later.
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0 sats \ 0 replies \ @south_korea_ln OP 2 Nov
See here: #750702
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0 sats \ 0 replies \ @south_korea_ln OP 31 Oct
Hint: never change a winning team...
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0 sats \ 0 replies \ @0xbitcoiner 31 Oct
I bet it's greater than zero and less than one! Ahhhah
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0 sats \ 2 replies \ @Aardvark 31 Oct
I'm sticking with 42. It's going to be correct eventually.
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10 sats \ 1 reply \ @south_korea_ln OP 31 Oct
Just for you, I'll make sure that it'll happen, one day... just need to stick around, long enough
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0 sats \ 0 replies \ @Aardvark 31 Oct
I'll do my best!
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